Thought I'd throw this in the mix to get your opinions.

A new employer takes on his first employee without a P45. However the new employee was receiving benefits and will receive a P45 in the very near future.

Should a P46 be submitted or wait for the P45?
The first pay day has gone by with deductions on Wk1/Month1 basis

Look forward to your comments

Bill

Hi Bill

I would always submit the P46 regardless of the situation with a P45. This way you can be sure that you have always covered yourself with the revenue to show why you taxed someone on the code you did for that pay period.

Regards

Mark

Cheers Mark

That's the route I had contemplated.

Bill

That is ok.

It makes it easier especially if you can just do an electronic submission of it then you don't need to worry about completing page 2 of the p46 you just have to press a button to send it.

Regards

Mark

If you do not have a P45 when you make the first payment, you must complete a P46 and go by the code required ie only job then wk/mth 1 etc. You cannot then amend the figures as you wish when you get the P45 a week later.

P